Feeds:
Posts
Comments

Archive for November 9th, 2008

Why do people go out of their way with their political agenda to attack the Christian faith and talk about things they don’t know about?

I got a message of someone that brought up a concern of a radical leftist student leader who wrote, “Mark 14:51-52 was Jesus a Child Molestor??”

For the guy’s protection, my friend gave him the pseudonym of “Alpha Kilo”.

To this I respond:

I don’t what Kilo your friend Alpha Kilo friend is smoking, but this is perfect example of isogesis instead of an exegetical study of Scripture.  I consulted the Greek for these two verses, and consulted the immediate context of the passage. Some comments:

(1) First off, if there is any “molesting”, it is not explicit in the text because there are no verbs of sexual behavior in this text. The burden of proof is on him to show how did he get this idea from the text? If there are idiomatic phrases of sexuality, the burden of proof is for the one who assert it to demonstrate it from New Testament/Koine Greek idiomatic references, Greek Word Study, etc to make his case. But I think the further observations I make below will make his case very, V-E-R-Y weak.

(2) Secondly, if we grant him the extreme benefit of the doubt to your friend that there was sexual activity going on here, it can not ‘molest’ as the Greek word in verse 51 of “young man”, is exactly that, a young man. It’s not little toddlers or boys. So on the observation alone of the word young man “Neaniskos” rule out ‘molest’. Molestation is out of the question because the alleged ‘victim’ is no toddler. Think of a 18 year old marine PFC, and tell me if that’s a victim of being molested. Your friend is incorrect and should have rephrased “rape” or something else, but not molest.

(3) if there was any molesting by Jesus, we would expect at the minimum JESUS doing something to the man. In other words, we would grammatically expect an active verb with the subject of the Personal noun ‘Jesus’ or a pronoun which antecedent is clearly Jesus. But Jesus here is only mentioned once according to the NIV. Actually, in the original Greek, there is no proper noun “JESUS” in verse 51, but a personal pronoun that should be properly translated “Him”, in reference to Jesus in the preceding verse in verse 48 (see the New American Standard Bible). Is “Him” (that is, Jesus) predicating anything? In other words, are there a verb that goes with the subject “Him”? No, because the case for the pronoun “Him” is not in a nominative case (the grammatical case needed in order for “Him” to be the Subject of a verb in which case it is then “He”). Actually “Him” here is in the Dative Case, which means that “Him” is the recipient of the verb preceding it. In other words, “He” (meaning Jesus) is the object of the verb, not the SUBJECT. There is no sense of Jesus engaging in any active behavior here, and when translated with the verb it states that the Young man ” followed Him.” Jesus is not even doing anything in verses 51-52, let alone what your friend asserted!

4.)If anything was done to the young man, it WAS NOT JESUS but the group of men who arrested Jesus. The verb “seize” in verse 51 is in the 3rd person plural form and can not be JESUS (3rd Person Singular) but the group who arrested Jesus.

5.) Finally, the charge that this text teaches that Jesus was a molester is unbelievably ignorant. The context here is Jesus being arrested, and while being under arrest he managed to molest someone? Incredible. If that was so, then why did the Jews and Romans had such a hard time finding him guilty of wrong doing? Think again about how ridiculous someone can say that Jesus was molesting someone while a whole armed guard was controlling him.

Advertisements

Read Full Post »