Today’s post will tackle another question that the Skeptic Annotated Bible asked: “When did Jesus receive his beating?”
Here are the two answers which the skeptic believes shows a Bible contradiction:
Before Pilate ordered his crucifixion.
And the soldiers twisted together a crown of thorns and put it on His head, and put a purple robe on Him; 3 and they began to come up to Him and say, “Hail, King of the Jews!” and to give Him slaps in the face.
…..
So he then handed Him over to them to be crucified. (John 19:2-3, 16)
After Pilate ordered his crucifixion.
Then he released Barabbas for them; but after having Jesus scourged, he handed Him over to be crucified.
(Matthew 27:26)Wishing to satisfy the crowd, Pilate released Barabbas for them, and after having Jesus scourged, he handed Him over to be crucified. (Mark 15:15)
(Note: Scriptural quotation comes from the New American Standard Bible)
The page that feature this alleged contradiction also says “Christian Response (None yet).” Let us change that. Don’t take the lack of a Christian response thus far to mean that it’s so difficult there’s nothing that can be said in response.
Here’s a closer look at whether or not there is a contradiction:
- When dealing with skeptics’ claim of Bible contradictions it seems one can never be reminded enough of what exactly is a contradiction. A contradiction occurs when two or more claims conflict with one another so that they cannot simultaneously be true in the same sense and at the same time.
- Even on the surface level what the skeptics are claiming is not even a contradiction. If we were to take it for granted (that is, without looking at those verses in the context more carefully) that the skeptics are right to say that the Bible teaches Jesus was beaten “before Pilate ordered his crucifixion” and the Bible also teaches Jesus was beaten “after Pilate ordered his crucifixion,” it is not a contradiction.
- Logically speaking one can be beaten both before and after sentencing.
- I’m not saying it is right but soldiers beating a captive before and after the sentencing is somewhat a common phenomenon. I’m reading right now a book that discusses the Japanese occupation of the Philippines and how they would lose the battle of hearts and minds because their soldiers just slap people for everything. I’m at a chapter where a spy against the Japanese was caught and she’s being slapped and beaten before her sentencing. After her sentencing the beating continues. No one would say that’s a contradiction.
- Anyone seen any ISIS videos where the prisoners are being beaten and slapped around before the sentencing was declared and then the same happens after the victims are “sentenced” and enroute to being slaughtered?
- In trying to make this a Bible contradiction the skeptic is either trying to hard to force a Bible contradictions to exist or they are rather naive of the depravity of human nature to inflict harm to one another, or both. This alleged Bible contradiction made up by the skeptic reveals more that it’s a first world problem occurring within their own mind due to their failure to understand evil men’s abilities as I can’t imagine someone outside of the West ever imagining this can be a contradiction.
- In order for there to be an actual logical contradiction to the question ““When did Jesus receive his beating?”” at least one of the two claims should be supplemented with the word “only.” For instance, logically it would be a contradiction if one of the claim was “Jesus was beaten only before Pilate ordered his crucifixion” and the second claim was “Jesus was beaten after Pilate ordered his crucifixion.” Or vice versa. But that’s not even the skeptics’ claim.
- Continuing with point 3 we must note that the verses cited as proof texts for the skeptics claims also don’t use the language of “only” or similar terminology. So there’s no contradictions within the Biblical passage either.
- Thus from point 1-4 we see there’s not a logical contradiction in terms of the timing aspect.
- Let’s go further with looking at the passages as we shall see here there’s not a contradiction in terms of the sense of beating before and after the sentencing of Jesus to be crucified.
- The skeptic cited John 19:2 as something taking place before Jesus was crucified (they are correct). Note John 19:2 states that the Roman soldiers “slapped” Jesus. Slapping is not the same thing as “scourged,” which occurred after Jesus was sentenced. The verb “scourged” are in the passages the skeptic cited as taking place after Jesus was sentenced.
- If one were to pay better attention to the Scriptures one would see that Jesus was “whipped” before He was sentenced by Pilate. Look at John 19:1.
- Interestingly there are two different verbs used to described Jesus being whipped. Why is that? To answer that we must study the word’s meaning in light of its usage.
- The verb used in John 19:1 to describe Jesus being whipped before Pilate ordered his crucifixion is the verb μαστιγόω. It derives from a word that originally referred to horse whip and the word has a long history, going back to Homer who used it over 20 times in that sense (“μαστιγόω,” New International Dictionary of the New Testament Theology and Exegesis, 3:246). Even in Biblical usage the term describes whipping such as found in the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Old Testament) in describing the whipping of the donkey by Balaam in Numbers 22:25.
- The verb used in Matthew 27:26 and Mark 15:15 to describe Jesus being whipped after Pilate ordered his crucifixion is the verb φραγελλόω. It is a different verb than the verb μαστιγόω that is used to describe the whipping before Jesus was sentenced by Pilate. The verb φραγελλόω is actually a “loanword” in that it is not originally Greek. It is “borrowed” from the Latin flagellum (“μαστιγόω,” New International Dictionary of the New Testament Theology and Exegesis, 3:247). The Flagellum was no ordinary whip and it definitely was not a horse whip.
- Here’s a description: “At Rome the scourging of citizens had been forbidden from very early times (Liv x 9 Cic Pcrd 4 12 in Verr v 66 170) persons and especially slaves scourged in a variety of ways of flagellum was the worst (horribili flagcllo Sat i 3 119). It was a “knout” or “cat” with lashes of knotted cord or even wire…” (William Smith, A Dictionary of Greek and Roman Antiquities, 1:864).
- If you want to read more about it you can read the entry HERE.
- The use of the flagellum often accompanied capital offense (“μαστιγόω,” New International Dictionary of the New Testament Theology and Exegesis, 3:247).
- Thus from the use of the two verbs we see that there are two different kinds of whipping that took place before and after Jesus was sentenced to be crucified by Pilate. The most severe form was φραγελλόω which took place after Jesus was sentenced. With φραγελλόω the action is no longer a slap on the wrist, like one whip a horse. Its so severe its forbidden to flog Roman citizens with it. It’s so severe it’s given before a capital punishment.
- Thus there’s even a different sense of how Jesus was beaten that doesn’t even make this a contradiction at all. Again I’m looking at this to understand truly what’s happening according to the text of Scripture. That’s more important than merely answering a skeptic’s charge of Bible contradiction. But after understanding the text and being more enriched to know what is actually going on I want to make the point to show that even if one assume that Jesus was ONLY (big assumption) “whipped” (root: μαστιγόω) before Pilate ordered the crucifixion still there’s no contradiction since Jesus was “scourged” (root: φραγελλόω) in a very different sense after the crucifixion was ordered.
There’s no contradictions at all here. The Skeptic Annotated Bible can marked this as another Bible contradiction in which Christians have answered.
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
Hmmm… Brother Jim, I’d read this all in God’s Word of the the King James Version Holy Bible (KJV) for clarity: http://www.jesus-is-savior.com/Bible/1611_authorized_king_james.htm
_______________
Thanks for the exploration. Amen.
~ Bro. Jed
Hey brother Jed, I’ll have to check that out in a bit…about to drive right now. God bless you brother and your ministry.
Reblogged this on Talmidimblogging.
Whoah thanks for the reblog! How’s your health doing brother? I just prayed for you after seeing someone asked about your health
You’re very welcome Brother, Tuesday’s to rehab didn’t go well. Had to cut it short, blood pressure and heart rate were within normal rates, no nitroglycerin was needed. rehab to continue this Thursday, Dr. appt Friday. Thank you for your prayers Pastor Jim 💪
I’ll be praying for you rehab as well for Thursday. Is this in the morning?
Yeah, 7am Eastern
You’ve pulled up some silly ones, but this one is redunkulous.
“redunkulous.” LoL. Did you made up that term or is this another Southern saying?
That’s another Southerner….
Jim, Thanks for the interesting refutation!
You’re welcome Tom! I’m at a library researching for another contradiction that I’ll probably post next week, its encouraging to have your comment for me to continue pushing onwards!
I won’t pretend to be a Biblical Scholar but I think you hit this out of the park! It’s always interesting that nonbelievers first objection of the Bible seems to be that it is full of contradictions. Well, I’m still waiting! LOL! Great read!! 😊👍🏻
Thank you Lorra for reading this and your comment!
Skeptics miss the truly devastating treatment our Lord endured for our sakes. ‘knowing this first: that scoffers will come in the last days, walking according to their own lusts, and saying, “Where is the promise of His coming? For since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of creation.”
II Peter 3:3-4 NKJV
Thank you SlimJim for the informative post and let’s pray that the skeptics soften their hearts.
Amen thank you for the reminder to pray for them…I pray God would use this post and our prayers…
[…] Are the passages and claims in question really mutually exclusive? Or to put it another way, is it truly the case that it must be one or the other claim must be true when they can be both true? Ask this question to diagnosed whether or not the passages and claims are truly contradictory. As an example of how this is helpful see our response to the question “What was Sodom’s sin?” and “When did Jesus receive his beating?“ […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] the website’s own words are not even contradictory. (See for instance our post on “When did Jesus receive his beating?“) In answering the question “When was heaven created?” the first claim, […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
If there was ever an obvious example of both/and instead of either/or this must be it
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] answered here the question “When did Jesus receive his beating?” In that post I noted the use of two different Greek verbs to describe the beating/whipping Jesus […]
I think its largely trolls that use the skeptic annotated Bible to attack Christians online. Those who are serious about knowing about the Bible will go somewhere else to learn about it.
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] Are the passages and claims in question really mutually exclusive? Or to put it another way, is it truly the case that it must be one or the other claim must be true when they can be both true? Ask this question to diagnosed whether or not the passages and claims are truly contradictory. As an example of how this is helpful see our response to the question “What was Sodom’s sin?” and “When did Jesus receive his beating?“ […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]
[…] When did Jesus receive his beating? […]